Question 570
After a documented finance process change, the original condition was: A fixed asset group includes a machine that was retired, but the depreciation run generates a charge in a period after retirement. What should validation demonstrate?
Explanation
Correct Answer
No post-retirement depreciation remains and final disposal value reconciles. This directly tests the intended correction: Confirm the approved retirement/disposal effective date and correct processing eligibility for that asset book. The underlying failure or control mechanism is: Retirement timing determines when depreciation and book transactions cease.
Incorrect Answers
Only active eligible assets receive depreciation and disposed assets remain closed. That would verify a different case: A fixed asset's monthly depreciation batch accidentally includes disposed assets. It does not verify the required corrective action: Confirm the approved retirement/disposal effective date and correct processing eligibility for that asset book.
One legitimate acquisition cost remains in the asset book and general ledger. That would verify a different case: A finance clerk manually records an asset acquisition and a later PO invoice posts the same cost again. It does not verify the required corrective action: Confirm the approved retirement/disposal effective date and correct processing eligibility for that asset book.
The asset's book transactions and GL balances reconcile after a controlled correction. That would verify a different case: An asset has a depreciation adjustment after an approved useful-life change, but finance manually edits accumulated depreciation account balances. It does not verify the required corrective action: Confirm the approved retirement/disposal effective date and correct processing eligibility for that asset book.