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Exam Code: CCA-F

Exam Name: Claude Certified Architect - Foundations

Certification Provider: Anthropic

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"Claude Certified Architect - Foundations Exam", also known as CCA-F exam, is a Anthropic certification exam.

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Anthropic CCA-F Practice Test 22

Question 210

A change agent asks the owner to authorize a firewall exception. The owner explicitly denies it, but the model keeps asking the same approver through alternate channels. What should its control logic do?

  1. Forget the denial when a new agent process starts.
  2. Record the definitive denial and stop attempts to execute or re-seek the same unauthorized change unless new authorization context appears.
  3. Keep requesting until a different human eventually says yes.
  4. Deploy the exception and label it emergency because approval was inconvenient.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

An explicit policy decision is a termination condition for the requested side effect. Repeated prompts cannot overturn denial.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Resumption should preserve material policy decisions. Deleting state causes repeated unauthorized requests.

C:

Approval shopping can bypass accountability. The scope and authority of the decision must be respected.

D:

A refusal is not execution authority. Side effects must remain blocked.

Question 211

Three agents review an API migration. Two have only a changelog summary; the third inspected the currently deployed schema and found an incompatible required field. Which aggregation policy is sound?

  1. Average confidence scores to produce a pass/fail without checking sources.
  2. Evaluate the deployed-schema evidence and treat the incompatibility as a blocker until reconciled, regardless of the worker vote count.
  3. Approve because two workers gave a positive opinion.
  4. Hide the contrary finding to keep the summary concise.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Evidence quality and applicability matter more than numerical majority. The coordinator should expose the conflict and require a migration fix.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Uncalibrated scores cannot prove schema compatibility. The underlying evidence should decide.

C:

A majority based on weaker sources cannot overturn a concrete incompatibility. One verified blocker may invalidate the plan.

D:

Suppressing material dissent creates a misleading release assessment. The issue must be tracked.

Question 212

A refund agent has completed identity verification but has not confirmed the original payment was captured. What must happen before refund execution?

  1. Issue a refund based solely on successful login.
  2. Treat a screenshot of a purchase as equivalent to settlement confirmation.
  3. Automatically approve twice the payment amount to compensate for uncertainty.
  4. Check the authoritative captured transaction and refund eligibility; only then allow the tool call under policy.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Identity verification establishes who is requesting, not whether money can be refunded. Business prerequisites must be validated separately.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Authentication does not establish an eligible charge. The agent could refund a nonexistent or already refunded payment.

B:

Screenshots can be stale or altered. The payment system is the authoritative source.

C:

Guessing amounts creates financial errors. The valid transaction and policy determine the refund.

Question 213

An analyst has to enrich a supplier profile using registry status, sanctions screening and contact verification. The sources are independent, but account opening must wait for all mandatory checks. What orchestration fits?

  1. Infer that sanctions screening passed when the registry is active.
  2. Use the contact verification result as permission to bypass every other check.
  3. Run independent mandatory checks concurrently, capture per-source status, and block account opening until required checks are valid.
  4. Open the account when whichever check finishes first returns positive.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Parallel evidence collection reduces latency without skipping the final dependency. Explicit status preserves failed and unavailable checks.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Registry standing and sanctions status are distinct facts. One result cannot substitute for another.

B:

Contactability is not sufficient risk or legal authorization. Dependencies should remain explicit.

D:

One favorable check cannot satisfy all mandatory due diligence conditions. The gate needs complete required evidence.

Question 214

A deployment assistant saves a session with an approved release plan. It crashes after scheduling a CI run but before receiving its result. Which session state prevents incorrect resumption?

  1. Mark all pending jobs successful on restart.
  2. Launch a fresh job with a new identifier every time the session starts.
  3. Forget the deployment approval and assume it can be regenerated later.
  4. Record the CI job identifier, scheduled status and retrieval method, then reconcile actual completion before proceeding.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Scheduled is not passed. Durable identifiers allow the agent to resume observation without launching duplicate jobs.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Unknown outcomes must remain unknown. A success claim without the CI result could release broken software.

B:

Unnecessary reruns consume resources and can duplicate side effects. Existing jobs should be reconciled.

C:

Approval provenance matters to authorization. Durable session state should preserve it.

Question 215

A contractor shares a repository CLAUDE.md file across teams. It contains rules plus private home directory paths and personal access tokens. Which redesign is appropriate?

  1. Delete all repository instructions to remove secrets.
  2. Keep portable team conventions in tracked CLAUDE.md and move personal paths and tokens to untracked local configuration or a secret manager.
  3. Obfuscate tokens with a reversible substitution cipher and keep them in Git.
  4. Make all contractors use the same permanent token.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Shared instructions should be reviewable and safe to distribute. Machine-specific sensitive data belongs in controlled local settings.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Useful portable rules can remain after sanitization. Only inappropriate values need relocation.

C:

Weak obfuscation does not protect secrets. Repository history can expose them.

D:

Shared credentials remove accountability and expand compromise impact. Scoped identities are preferable.

Question 216

An assistant is asked to email an audit report to “Alex Chen.” The directory contains two contacts with that name at different firms. What should it do before sending?

  1. Remove the report’s classification label and send to either contact.
  2. Ask for or verify the intended contact using organization and address, then send only after matching the recipient.
  3. Send to both contacts to ensure at least one receives it.
  4. Select the first alphabetical contact and assume that is intended.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

A name alone is insufficient for sensitive delivery. Recipient resolution prevents accidental disclosure.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Removing a label does not change sensitivity. The data should stay protected.

C:

Sending to an unintended recipient leaks confidential information. Multiple matches require disambiguation.

D:

Sort order has no authorization meaning. The correct person must be identified.

Question 217

A multi-agent contract review has drafting and citation-validation workers. The draft is finished, but the validator reports two unsupported references. What should the coordinator report?

  1. Ask the validator to produce arbitrary replacement URLs.
  2. Draft completed, citation gate failed, and final approval blocked pending repairs with cited issue IDs.
  3. Approved, because the draft text exists.
  4. Hide the validation report and use the draft as final.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Partial progress is not the same as an approved deliverable. Propagating child failures preserves a truthful overall state.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Invented citations do not establish evidence. Unsupported claims need factual repair or removal.

C:

The missing citations violate a required quality gate. Completion of one stage cannot override the failure.

D:

Suppressing defects defeats independent checking. The issue ledger should remain available.

Question 218

A coding assistant is modifying a billing retry loop and has identified the relevant module. Its context window is crowded by full dependency lockfiles. What should it retain?

  1. The retry function, callers, relevant tests and exact dependency behavior, using file references for larger unrelated artifacts.
  2. All lockfiles verbatim while dropping the retry tests.
  3. Only a high-level summary that payments may fail.
  4. A random set of recent commits unrelated to billing.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Task-specific context improves focus and leaves room for reasoning. Lockfiles can be searched on demand if versions matter.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Large metadata does not substitute for the actual behavior being changed. Tests are critical evidence.

C:

Generalities cannot support a safe code edit. The exact retry logic and interfaces are needed.

D:

Unrelated history consumes attention without establishing the bug. Retrieval should be targeted.

Question 219

An AI data-cleaning tool proposes replacing 8,000 customer records with inferred names. The suggestions have variable confidence and may overwrite verified legal names. Which review interface is appropriate?

  1. Show affected records, proposed changes, source evidence and confidence tiers, require authorized approval before the bulk write.
  2. Apply all names automatically as long as the average confidence is high.
  3. Hide the original values to avoid reviewer bias.
  4. Allow the AI to delete exceptions instead of escalating them.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Human review is valuable when changes are high impact and potentially irreversible. A diff and provenance support an informed decision.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Averages can hide serious individual errors. A bulk change requires record-level safeguards.

C:

The reviewer needs the before state to judge whether changes are appropriate. Omission weakens audit.

D:

Deleting ambiguous records does not resolve uncertainty and can cause data loss. Exceptions require targeted handling.

Question 220

A financial agent prepares a transfer, but its PreToolUse policy hook cannot contact the authorization service. The user requests immediate execution. What should happen?

  1. Ask the model to estimate the probability that the user is authorized.
  2. Send the transfer to a randomly chosen account while waiting for policy recovery.
  3. Block the transfer until authorization can be verified, return a retryable policy-service failure, and preserve request context.
  4. Execute because the policy service did not explicitly deny it.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

An unavailable permission service does not grant authority. Fail-closed behavior protects financial side effects while permitting later safe recovery.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Model confidence cannot substitute for trusted authorization. The financial gate must remain enforced.

B:

An unrelated destination would create a much larger error. Unverified operations must be blocked.

D:

Absence of a response is not approval. Failing open bypasses a critical control.

Claude Certified Architect - Foundations (CCA-F) Practice Tests